Consider the following statements:
$S_1:\forall xP(x)\vee \forall xQ(x)$ and $\forall x(P(x)\vee Q(x))$ are not logically equivalent.
$S_2:\exists xP(x)\wedge \exists xQ(x)$ and $\exists x(P(x)\wedge Q(x))$ are not logically equivalent.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
For $S_1$:
$\forall xP(x)\vee \forall xQ(x)$ means either $P(x)$ is true for all $x$, or $Q(x)$ is true for all $x$.
But $\forall x(P(x)\vee Q(x))$ means for every $x$, at least one of $P(x)$ or $Q(x)$ is true.
These two statements are not logically equivalent.
So, $S_1$ is true.
For $S_2$:
$\exists xP(x)\wedge \exists xQ(x)$ means there exists some $x$ for $P(x)$ and there exists some $x$ for $Q(x)$. These may be different values.
But $\exists x(P(x)\wedge Q(x))$ means there exists the same $x$ for which both $P(x)$ and $Q(x)$ are true.
These two statements are also not logically equivalent.
So, $S_2$ is true.
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